The courts sometimes say that the tort of intimidation cannot be based on a threat to commit

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The courts sometimes say that the tort of intimidation cannot be based on a threat to commit a breach of contract. Why does that apparent rule apply to two-party intimidation but not to three-party intimidation?

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Managing the Law The Legal Aspects of Doing Business

ISBN: 978-0133847154

5th edition

Authors: Mitchell McInnes, Ian R. Kerr, J. Anthony VanDuzer

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Question Posted: Feb 20, 2019 11:30 AM

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The courts sometimes say that the tort of intimidation cannot be based on a threat to commit

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Twoparty intimidation occurs when the defendant directly coerces the plaintiff into suffering a ...View the full answer

Managing the Law The Legal Aspects of Doing Business

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