=+e. It turns out (for reasons that become clearer in part B) that risk aversion (or neutrality) is irrelevant for how individuals whose behavior is explained by expected utility theory will choose among these gambles. In a separate graph, illustrate the consumption/utility relationship again, but this time assume risk loving. Illustrate in the graph how your choice over the two gambles might still be the same as in parts

(c) and (d). Can you think of why it in fact has to be the same?