Statoll, the national oil company of Norway, has acquired debt capital in a variety of foreign currencies (see Exhibit 7.11). After borrowing the capital, however, Statoil swapped its currency obligations to hedge its currency exposure. As shown in Exhibit 7.11, the residual currency position in most major currencies was relatively small. Why do you think Statoil chose to reduce its longterm currency position in some currencies to near zero while leaving other currency positions essentially untouched?