A researcher who has been studying albinism has identified a large group of families with four children in which at least one child shows albinism. None of the parents in this group of families shows albinism. Among the children, the ratio of those without albinism to those with albinism is 1.7:1. The researcher is surprised by this result because he thought that a 3:1 ratio would be expected on the basis of Mendel’s Principle of Segregation. Can you explain the apparently non-Mendelian segregation ratio in the researcher’s data?