$11.$ Suppose the following quotations exist in the foreign exchange markets:

London Paris

$$/$ $$/$

Bid $1\mathrm{.}12251\mathrm{.}1226$

Ask $1\mathrm{.}12261\mathrm{.}1229$

Under the above scenario, is arbitrage possible? If so$,$ how much profit can be made per $?$ If not, why not. Provide an example of how the above prices need to change to eliminate arbitrage if arbitrage is possible or to allow arbitrage if arbitrage is currently not possible $($you will need only $1$ example$).$