Question
1 - due 10/4/99 Article : http://old.seattletimes.com/text/2018321244.html The authors defined getting worse as a change (in blood pressure, fasting insulin, cholesterol or triglycerides) that was
Article :http://old.seattletimes.com/text/2018321244.html
The authors defined getting worse as a change (in blood pressure, fasting insulin, cholesterol or triglycerides) that was more than 2 standard deviations above zero (or below, whichever was bad). For all of the measures (except fasting insulin) the mean change was about zero. Assuming that the changes are normally distributed, what percent of individuals would you expect to get worse on any given measure just due to random variability alone?
For this question, I am particularly confused on how to use the "2 Standard Deviations" to find the percentage of individuals that would "get worse" simply from random variability. Could you clarify on how to approach this problem? Thanks
Step by Step Solution
There are 3 Steps involved in it
Step: 1
Get Instant Access to Expert-Tailored Solutions
See step-by-step solutions with expert insights and AI powered tools for academic success
Step: 2
Step: 3
Ace Your Homework with AI
Get the answers you need in no time with our AI-driven, step-by-step assistance
Get Started