1. How did the treatment of the financial sector in GDP affect the measure of economic growth and the value to economic integration before the crisis? (a) Why did the financial sector produce arrogance that "lead to follies" ? (b) What affect did this have on policy? (c) What affect did this have on economic development? (d) Why might GDP growth not be a good measure for the success of the "Chinese" model? (e) Why does the author find the behavior of the financial sector in England in 2008 as documented by GDP non-credible