1.	Project management is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT:
	A)	Overall control of the project
	B)	Delegating budgetary responsibility to the finance organization
	C)	Overall supervision
	D)	Overall planning
	E)	None of the above

2.	__________ involves a neutral third party who acts as a "judge" and issues a binding decision to resolve a dispute.
	A)	Arbitration.
	B)	Mediation.
	C)	Distributive negotiations.
	D)	Alternative dispute resolution.
	E)	Integrative negotiations.

3.	Which level of management spends more time with long-range planning?
	A)	All levels of management.
	B)	Lower-level and middle-level managers.
	C)	Top-level managers.
	D)	Lower-level managers.
	E)	Middle-level managers.

4.	The responsibility of __________ involves human resource planning, recruitment, and selection.
	A)	Staffing a quality workforce.
	B)	Maintaining a quality workforce.
	C)	Attracting a quality workforce.
	D)	Planning for a quality workforce.
	E)	Developing a quality workforce.

5.	Which of the following is NOT a correct description of some attribute of workflow?
	A)	An important starting point for reengineering is to diagram workflows.
	B)	Workflow refers to the movement of work from one point to another in a system.
	C)	Special attention should be given to eliminating the role of technology in the work process.
	D)	The various steps of a work process must be completed to achieve desired results, and they typically must be completed in a given order.
	E)	Each step in the workflow should be analyzed to determine whether or not it is adding value.

6.	A __________ is able to continually learn and adapt itself to new experiences.
	A)	Systems organization.
	B)	Change organization.
	C)	Experience-based organization.
	D)	Learning organization.
	E)	Values organization.

7.	Internal control occurs when __________.
	A)	Computers are used to monitor performance inside the organization.
	B)	Motivated managers defend the organization against outside competitive attacks.
	C)	Motivated individuals and groups are directly supervised.
	D)	Motivated individuals and groups exercise self-discipline in fulfilling job requirements.
	E)	Managers take responsibility for the activities in their own departments.

8.	The most common form of __________ is a "4-40" schedule -- that is, 40 hours of work accomplished in four 10-hour days.
	A)	Job simplification.
	B)	Flexible working hours.
	C)	Telecommuting.
	D)	Job sharing.
	E)	The compressed workweek.

9.	The conflict management style of __________involves being uncooperative and assertive. This style is characterized by working against the wishes of the other party, engaging in win-lose competition, and/or forcing through the exercise of authority.
	A)	Compromise.
	B)	Competition.
	C)	Avoidance.
	D)	Collaboration.
	E)	Accommodation.

10.	The planning process is a systematic way of approaching which of the following tasks?
	A)	Setting performance objectives.
	B)	Deciding how to best achieve performance objectives.
	C)	Ensuring that performance objectives have been attained.
	D)	A and B.
	E)	A, B, and C.

11.	According to Frederick Taylor, the principal object of management should be __________.
	A)	Securing maximum prosperity for employer and employee.
	B)	Profitability.
	C)	Efficiency.
	D)	Achieving the greatest good for society.
	E)	The good of the community.

12.	In the measurement step of the control process, which statement is accurate:
	A)	Measurement really doesn't affect overall performance objectives
	B)	Effective control is still possible without measurement
	C)	What gets measured tends to happen
	D)	None of the above
	E)	All of the above

13.	__________ involve(s) exchanging ownership shares in the business in return for outside investment monies.
	A)	Equity financing.
	B)	Money market instruments.
	C)	Futures trading.
	D)	Debt financing.
	E)	Commodities marketing.

14.	__________ stress impairs the performance of an individual and is dysfunctional for the individual and/or the organization.
	A)	Negative.
	B)	Intense.
	C)	Constructive.
	D)	Positive.
	E)	Destructive.

15.	__________ is a predisposition to act in a certain way toward people and things in one's environment.
	A)	A need.
	B)	Locus of control.
	C)	An attitude.
	D)	A norm.
	E)	A behavior.

16.	Which one of following items does NOT identify a problem that is commonly encountered in teams?
	A)	A strong belief in group work.
	B)	Task ambiguity.
	C)	Poor readiness to work.
	D)	Differences in work styles.
	E)	Personality conflicts.

17.	For control purposes, which of the following in NOT an important financial aspect of organizational performance?
	A)	The ability to earn revenues greater than costs.
	B)	The ability to sell shares of the company's stock.
	C)	The ability to use resources efficiently and operate at minimum cost.
	D)	The ability to generate cash to pay bills.
	E)	The ability to earn more in returns than the cost of the debt.

18.	Henri Fayol's __________ closely resemble the __________ that are used in contemporary businesses.
	A)	Principles of collective and social responsibility ... functions of management.
	B)	Notions of planning and organizing ... ideas of command and coordination.
	C)	Administrative principles ... systems and contingency approaches.
	D)	Three rules of management ... systems and contingency approaches.
	E)	Five duties of management ... four functions of management.

19.	All of the following are reasons for the high failure rate of new businesses EXCEPT:
	A)	Not keeping track of the numbers and failure to control business finances.
	B)	Not having sufficient know-how to run a business in the chosen market or area.
	C)	Not taking the time to adequately promote the product.
	D)	Not taking the time to craft a vision and mission, and formulate, revise, and properly implement strategy.
	E)	Not having expertise in the essentials of business operations, including finance, purchasing, selling and production.

20.	__________ direct activities toward key and specific performance results.
	A)	Strategic objectives.
	B)	Operating objectives.
	C)	Planning objectives.
	D)	Corporate objectives.
	E)	Official objectives.

21.	A manager is overheard to say: "The best way to manage is to make sure that your response is appropriate to the demands and characteristics of the situation at hand." His point of view is most closely associated with __________.
	A)	Closed-systems thinking.
	B)	Human relations thinking.
	C)	Bureaucracy.
	D)	Contingency thinking.
	E)	Scientific management

22.	Organizations that consistently deliver above-average returns and outperform their competitors have structures that reflect all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
	A)	They give continual attention to quality improvements.
	B)	They emulate their competition.
	C)	They emphasize empowerment and support employees.
	D)	They stay flexible in dealing with a dynamic environment.
	E)	They are responsive to client or customer needs.

23.	__________ are responsible for the performance of the organization as a whole or of one of its major parts.
	A)	Team leaders or supervisors
	B)	Functional managers
	C)	Project managers
	D)	Top level managers
	E)	Middle level managers

24.	Effective __________ involves choices about the allocation of time to the most important priorities.
	A)	Strategic management.
	B)	Project budgeting.
	C)	Inventory management.
	D)	Time management.
	E)	Cash management.

25.	__________ indicates conformance with a rigorous set of international quality standards.
	A)	AAA certification.
	B)	Consumer protection certification.
	C)	ISO certification.
	D)	International Q certification.
	E)	International customer service certification.

26.	The process through which people receive, organize, and interpret information from their environment is called __________.
	A)	Impression management.
	B)	Communication.
	C)	Perception.
	D)	Cognition.
	E)	Active listening.

27.	__________ is the failure to include key persons in the strategic planning effort.
	A)	The lack of participation error.
	B)	Corporate governance.
	C)	Conflict avoidance.
	D)	Goal displacement.
	E)	The lack of substance error.

28.	The mission of an organization describes its __________.
	A)	Competitive advantage.
	B)	Basic purpose.
	C)	Environmental scanning.
	D)	Strategic advantage.
	E)	Strategic edge.

29.	Foreign companies operating in the United States __________.
	A)	Must deal with antitrust issues that prevent competitors from regularly communicating with one another.
	B)	Must deal with special laws regarding occupational safety and health, equal employment opportunity, and sexual harassment.
	C)	May encounter quite different laws than they are accustomed to in their home countries.
	D)	All of the above.
	E)	None of the above.

30.	CARICOM consists of an alliance between______________.
	A)	Carribean Countries
	B)	Eastern European Countries
	C)	Middle Eastern Countries
	D)	Venezuela, Columbia, Peru, Equador and Bolivia
	E)	Bolivia, Brazil, Paraguay, Uruguay and Argentina

31.	_____________ is defined as a set of standards that describes what is good and right in terms of one's behavior.
	A)	Social responsibility
	B)	Morality
	C)	Norms and values
	D)	Corporate governance
	E)	Ethics

32.	Almost __________ of American businesses are classified as small.
	A)	45 percent.
	B)	99 percent.
	C)	30 percent.
	D)	60 percent.
	E)	75 percent.

33.	A set of activities that help people acquire and improve job-related skills is called __________.
	A)	Training.
	B)	Socialization.
	C)	Orientation.
	D)	Job analysis.
	E)	Job specification.

34.	All of the following are stages in the life cycle of entrepreneurial firms EXCEPT:
	A)	Breakthrough.
	B)	Decline.
	C)	Incubation.
	D)	Growth.
	E)	Maturity.

35.	The basic goal of __________is building organizational performance capacity by raising human capital to ensure that highly capable and enthusiastic people are always available.
	A)	Human resource management.
	B)	Organizational workforce development.
	C)	Human resource strategizing.
	D)	Strategic workforce management.
	E)	Human mission matching.

36.	United Parcel Service makes use of calibrated productivity standards as well as the timing of package sorting, delivery, and pickup to keep productivity at the highest level per employee. In developing worker productivity standards, UPS obviously makes use of _________.
	A)	Systems theory.
	B)	Motion studies.
	C)	Administrative principles.
	D)	Behavioral theories.
	E)	Selfactualization.

37.	When a manager divides work up into manageable components, arranges resources, and coordinates results to achieve a common purpose, the manager is practicing __________.
	A)	Setting objectives.
	B)	Leadership.
	C)	Forecasting.
	D)	Organizing.
	E)	Strategic planning.

38.	According to ERG theory, __________ are desires for physiological and material well-being.
	A)	Relatedness needs.
	B)	Growth needs.
	C)	Esteem needs.
	D)	Developmental needs.
	E)	Existence needs.

39.	__________ is the process of creating strategy by assessing existing strategies, the organization, and the environment in order to develop new strategies capable of delivering future competitive advantage.
	A)	Strategy formulation.
	B)	Strategy review.
	C)	Strategy planning.
	D)	Strategy analysis.
	E)	Strategy development.

40.	Which statement concerning job performance is incorrect?
	A)	Job performance should add value to the organization's production of useful goods and/or services.
	B)	Job performance is achieved through individual tradeoffs with job satisfaction.
	C)	Job performance is the "bottom line" for people at work, and the cornerstone for overall organizational productivity.
	D)	Job performance should contribute to the accomplishment of organizational objectives.
	E)	Job performance is the quality and quantity of task contributions from the individual or group doing the job.

41.	_________ strategically links all operations dealing with resource supplies.
	A)	Supply chain management.
	B)	Total quality management.
	C)	Value chain management.
	D)	Customer relationship management
	E)	Internal customer management.

42.	A(n) __________ is generated by exploiting a niche or entering a market before competitors.
	A)	Niche manipulation.
	B)	Anticipatory niche advantage.
	C)	Niche competency.
	D)	First-mover advantage.
	E)	Anticipatory market edge.