1. What directly accesses a database? A. Accounting system users B. DBMS C. Finance system users D. All of the above 

2. Which of the following is a form of statistical analysis? A. Forecasting B. Market basket analysis C. Cluster analysis D. All of the above

3. What are characteristics or properties of an entity class called? A. Attributes B. Fields C. Columns D. All of the above 

4. Why do relational databases use primary keys and foreign keys? A. To create a database B. To create physical relationships C. To create logical relationships D. All of the above 

5. Which of the following is true in regards to the elimination of redundant information? A. Uses additional hard disk space B. Makes performing information updates harder C. Improves information quality D. All of the above 

6. When the Royal Bank immediately updates your bank deposit of $500 into your account, this would be an example of __________________ ? A. Analytical information B. Transactional data C. Real­time data D. Real­time information 

7. What is the time from which the analytical information is made available to the time when analysis is complete? A. Data latency B. Analysis latency C. Decision latency D. None of the above 

8. What benefits include working time saved in producing reports, selling information to suppliers, and so on? A. Direct quantifiable benefits B. Indirect quantifiable benefits C. Unpredictable benefits D. Intangible benefits 

9. When does information cleansing occur in the data warehouse? A. During the ETL process B. On the information, once it is in the data warehouse C. During the ETL process and once it is in the data warehouse D. During the ETL process and before it is in the data warehouse 

10. Which of the following represents market basket analysis? A. Analyzes Web site information B. Analyzes checkout scanner information C. Detects customers' buying behaviour D. All of the above 

11. What benefits can be evaluated through indirect evidence—improved customer service means new business from the same customer, and differentiated service brings new customers? A. Direct quantifiable benefits B. Indirect quantifiable benefits C. Unpredictable benefits D. Intangible benefits 

12. What is the time it takes a human to comprehend the analytic result and determine an appropriate action? A. Data latency B. Analysis latency C. Decision latency D. None of the above 

13. Each of the following is a factor affecting enterprise portal adoption and use except the: A. database management system B. information politics C. system development process D. information culture 

14. Single­point Web browser interfaces used within an organization to promote the gathering, sharing, and dissemination of information throughout an enterprise are known as: A. enterprise portals. B. corporate portals. C. business portals. D. All of the above. 

15. Common elements contained within enterprise portal designs include all of the following except: A. an enterprise taxonomy or classification of information. B. a search engine C. hypertext links to both internal and external Web sites and information sources. D. None of the above. 

16. Which of the following helps the user post and index information directly into the portal? A. publishing facility B. automatic indexing facility C. subscription facility D. intelligent agents 

17. With respect to information culture, which response below is not one of the five sub­factors identified as being significant in impacting the adoption and use of the enterprise portal? A. Information sharing B. Information overload C. Information metric D. Information control 

18. Which information sub­culture is described when users indicate a general ease of sharing documents, plans, and reports between colleagues and project team members with whom they worked? A. Information sharing B. Information overload C. Information metric D. Information control 

19. Which of the following is not one of the top 10 questions managers should ask regarding information security? A. Is there clear accountability for information security in our organization? B. How much is spent on information security and what is it being spent on? C. What is the impact on the organization of a serious security incident? D. How do we identify potential insiders? 

20. Canada's privacy laws follow very closely to the: A. European model B. US model C. Bork model D. None of the above 

21. Which of the following is not one of the 10 Guiding principles of PIPEDA for organizations: A. Accountability B. Accuracy C. Open access D. Safeguards 

22. If an organization were to have only one policy, which one would it want? A. Information privacy policy B. Acceptable use policy C. Internet use policy D. Ethical computer use policy 

23. Which of the following is not one of the five steps for creating an information security plan? A. Develop the information security policies B. Communicate the information security policies C. Revise and test the information security policies D. Test and reevaluate risks 

24. What is the most secure type of authentication? A. Something the user knows such as a user ID and password B. Something the user has such as a smart card or token C. Something that is part of the user such as a fingerprint or voice signature D. Combination of all of the above 

25. What is the most costly and intrusive form of authentication? A. Something the user knows such as a user ID and password B. Something the user has such as a smart card or token C. Something that is part of the user such as a fingerprint or voice signature D. None of the above 

26. What occurs when an organization uses software that filters content to prevent the transmission of unauthorized information? A. Biometrics B. Encryption C. Firewalls D. Content Filtering 

27. What is the most common type of defense within detection and response technologies? A. Malicious code B. Token C. User ID D. Antivirus software 

28. What is intangible creative work that is embodied in physical form? A. Ethics B. Intellectual property C. Copyright D. Fair Use Doctrine 

29. Which policy ensures that the users know how to behave at work and that the organization has a published standard through which to deal with user infractions? A. Information privacy policy B. Acceptable use policy C. Internet use policy D. Ethical computer use policy 

30. According to the ethical computer use policy, users should be ______________ of the rules and, by agreeing to use the system on that basis, _______________ to abide by the rules. A. Informed, collaborate B. Consent, informed C. Informed, consent D. None of the above 

31. What is one of the guidelines an organization can follow when creating an information privacy policy? A. Adoption and implementation of an anti­spam policy B. Notice and disclosure C. Choice and quality D. None of the above 

32. Which of the following is not a part of the e­mail privacy policy stipulations? A. It defines who legitimate e­mail users are B. It explains the backup procedures C. It describes the legitimate grounds for reading someone's e­mail D. It informs people that the organization has full control over e­mail once it is transmitted outside the organization 

33. Which of the following represents the estimated percentage that spam accounts for in an organizations' email traffic? A. 20 to 30 percent B. 30 to 50 percent C. 40 to 60 percent D. None of the above 

34. Which of the following authentication methods is 100 percent accurate? A. Smart card B. Fingerprint authentication C. User ID D. None of the above 

35. Which of the following does a firewall perform? A. Examines each message that wants entrance to the network B. Blocks messages without the correct markings from entering the network C. Detects computers communicating with the Internet without approval D. All of the above 

36. Production on the assembly line represents a form of life cycle management that is called A. SCRUM B. Pure Project Management C. Prototype Management D. None of the above 

37. Which of the following represents the classic example of unintentional information reuse? A. Phone number B. Social Security number C. Address D. Driver's license number 

38. Which of the following is incorrect in reference to a database? A. Can be relational or network B. Information is accessed by logical structure C. Information is accessed by physical structure D. Users can access different views of information 

39. Which of the following is correct in reference to a database? A. A database can support only one logical view B. A database can support many physical views C. A database can support many logical views D. A database can support up to 3 logical views 

40. What are rules that enforce basic and fundamental information­based constraints? A. Information integrity B. Integrity constraint C. Business­critical integrity constraint D. Relational integrity constraint 

41. When Wal­Mart receives inventory to an individual store, this would be an example of using __________________ ? A. Analytical information B. Transactional data C. Real­time data D. Real­time information 

42. When Wal­Mart reviews their monthly sales totals and profits by province, this would be an example of using __________________ ? A. Analytical information B. Transactional data C. Real­time data D. Real­time information 

43. What is the time duration to make transactional data ready for analysis, and loading the summarized, aggregated, cleansed data into a data warehouse ? A. Data latency B. Analysis latency C. Decision latency D. None of the above 

44. What benefits are the result of discoveries made by creative users? A. Direct quantifiable benefits B. Indirect quantifiable benefits C. Unpredictable benefits D. Intangible benefits 

45. A data warehouse is a _________ collection of information­gathered from many different ___________ databases­that supports business analysis activities and decision­making tasks. A. Physical, transactional B. Physical, operational C. Logical, transactional D. Logical, operational 

46. Bill Inmon, known as the "Father of Data Warehousing" described a Data Warehouse as a collection of data that is: A. subject­oriented B. integrated and time­variant C. non­volatile D. All of the above 

47. What does the Data Warehousing Institute estimate that low­quality information costs U.S. businesses annually? A. $500 million B. $60 billion C. hundred of billions of dollars D. It is impossible to determine 

48. Which of the following occurs during data cleansing? A. Clean missing records B. Clean redundant records C. Clean inaccurate data D. All of the above 

49. ____________________________________ methodology emphasizes extensive user involvement in the rapid and evolutionary construction of working prototypes of a system to accelerate the systems development process. A. Rapid application development (RAD) B. Extreme programming (XP) C. Rational Unified Process (RUP) D. Scrum 

50. ____________________________________, like other agile methods, breaks a project into tiny phases, and developers cannot continue on to the next phase until the first phase is complete. A. Rapid application development (RAD) B. Extreme programming (XP) C. Rational Unified Process (RUP) D. Scrum 

51. Which of the following is a business­related consequence of failing software? A. Decrease productivity B. Damage to brand reputation C. Incur liabilities D. All of the above 

52. What breaks a project into tiny phases, and developers cannot continue on to the next phase until the first phase is complete? A. RAD methodology B. Agile methodology C. Waterfall methodology D. Extreme programming 

53. Which of the following is not one of the tenets in the Agile Alliance's manifesto? A. Satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software B. Do not allow changing requirements, especially late in development C. Business people and developers must work together daily throughout the project D. All of the above 

54. Which of the following is a characteristic of a successful project? A. Delivered on time B. Delivered within budget C. Meets the business's requirements D. All of the above 

55. An organization must identify what it wants to do and how it is going to do it. What does the "what" part of this question focus on? A. Justification of the project B. Definition of the project C. Expected results of the project D. All of the above 

56. Which of the following is not a technique for choosing strategic projects? A. Categorize projects B. Perform a financial analysis C. Focus on organizational goals D. Develop a project plan 

57. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a well­defined project plan? A. Prepared by the project manager B. Easy to read C. Appropriate to the project's size D. Communicated to all key participants 

58. In a Gantt chart tasks are listed __________ and the project's timeframe is listed ____________. A. Vertically, horizontally B. Horizontally, vertically C. Vertically, Vertically D. Horizontally, horizontally 

59. What type of chart typically displays the critical path? A. Gantt chart B. PERT chart C. All of the above D. None of the above 

60. Which of the following is not a primary business goal of enterprise architectures? A. Reduce costs/improve productivity B. Improve customer satisfaction C. Generate goals D. Create competitive advantages 

61. What is the primary difference between the different types of backup/recovery media? A. Speed B. Cost C. Expense D. All of the above 

62. What type of backup strategy would you recommend to an organization that deals with large volumes of critical information? A. Hourly B. Daily C. Weekly D. Monthly 

63. Which of the following is a type of backup/recovery media? A. DVD B. Tape C. Disk D. All of the above