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1. What is distinctive, from a modern point of view, about Aristotle's notion of fairness? How does it compare to the implications of modern treatments
1. What is distinctive, from a modern point of view, about Aristotle's notion of fairness? How does it compare to the implications of modern treatments (such as 2-person equilibrium as shown in an Edgeworth box) regarding the distribution of the gains from trade in exchange? (Hint: take a look at Varian's Intermediate Microeconomics on 'envy-free' allocations).
2. What is the role of money in relation to justice in exchange?
3. Note that Aristotle's argument does not address the process of price formation. Why is this problematic?
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