1. What is distinctive, from a modern point of view, about Aristotle's notion of fairness? How does it compare to the implications of modern treatments (such as 2-person equilibrium as shown in an Edgeworth box) regarding the distribution of the gains from trade in exchange? (Hint: take a look at Varian's Intermediate Microeconomics on 'envy-free' allocations).

2. What is the role of money in relation to justice in exchange?

3. Note that Aristotle's argument does not address the process of price formation. Why is this problematic?