1. Why is it necessary to require a "substantial step" before mere plans become a criminal attempt? 2. Under the statutes of many states, a bar owner is criminally liable when an employee-bartender sells liquor to juveniles. What if the bar owner instructs the bartender not to sell liquor to juveniles, but the bartender disregards those instructions and sells to juveniles anyway? Should the owner be held criminally liable? Why or why not