Question
1.Why is the objective theory of contracts applied in determining whether a contract has been created? Why is the subjective intent of the parties not
1.Why is the objective theory of contracts applied in determining whether a contract has been created? Why is the subjective intent of the parties not considered?
2.What is the mirror image rule? Why is this rule applied strictly in determining whether a contract has been made?
3.Why are gift promises unenforceable if they are not supported by consideration? Do you think that many gift promises are made without the parties realizing that the promise is unenforceable?
4.Why is an illegal contract void? Does the rule that the court "will leave the parties where it finds them" ever cause unfair results?
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