2 b pls

2. By using the Big-Oh definition and formal proof, show that: a. Show that O(loga n)O(log, n) for a, b>1 Consider as (n) logan and g(n) - logan, then O(f(n)) O(g(n)) Reason: In BigQ O notation(log(n)) is the same for all bases All logarithmic functions grow in the same manner in terms of Big-O. This is due to logarithm base conversion Log2(n) log10(a)/log0(2) -1og10(2) [constant multiplier factor] Hence O(log (n)) is the same as o(log(n)) b. If f(n) is O(g(n)) and g(n) is O(h(n)), use the definition of Big Oh to show that f(n) is O(h(n))