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3 points] Suppose half of the investors in the market are subject to the psychological bias you identified and the remaining nvestors are rational. If

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3 points] Suppose half of the investors in the market are subject to the psychological bias you identified and the remaining nvestors are rational. If the world is frictionless (no margin constraints, no costs of trade execution, etc.), will the psychological Dias affect asset prices? Explain your reasoning

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