5. A hedge fund announces that the salary of its fund manager will depend on the performance of the fund over the next one-year. If the fund loses money, the salary will be zero. If the fund makes a profit, the salary will be proportional to profit - exactly 20% of the upside. Suppose that the prevailing risk-free rate is 6% (annul compounding) and the volatility of the hedge fund's return is 30%. If the fund has $50 million in assets under management, what is the approximate value of the fund manager's contract according to the Black-Scholes formula? Why might this not be a good estimate