5. Let $X_{1}, \ldots, X_{n} \sim operatorname{Bernoulli}(p)$. Prove that $$ \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^{n} X_{i}^{2} \stackrel{\mathrm{P}} {\longrightarrow} p \text { and } \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^{n} X_{i}^{2} \stackrel{\mathrm{qm}}{\longrightarrow} p $$ SP.JG.029