A bank uses the IMA approach to compute market risk and the IRB approach to compute credit risk. It has computed RWA of $$284$ million for market risk, $$376$ million for credit risk, and $$64$ million for operational risk. If it had used the SA$,$ its RWA would be $$409$ million for market risk and $$563$ million for credit risk. Assuming it is now $2030,$ what would be the output floor for this bank?

Note: Your answer must be expressed in $ millions and accurate to the nearest $