A call option with X = $45 on a stock currently priced at S= $50 is selling for $6. Using a volatility estimate of g = 0.20, you find that Nd) = 0.8276 and Md2) = 0.8008. The risk-free interest rate is zero. Is the implied volatility based on the option price more or less than 0.20? Greater than 0.20 Less than 0.20