A principal may be liable for the torts of the agent based on the principal's own negligence in

negligently selecting or failing to supervise the agent (called ("direct" liability) or under the concept

of "indirect liability" where the agent was acting within the course and scope of his employment,

even though the principle has committed no act of negligence. This concept of indirect or imputed

negligence is known as the concept of respondent superior. True or false?

No explanation needed. Thanks