A private equity firm wants to value Blue Apron customer cohorts but uses discount rates higher than the weighted average cost of capital $($WACC$)$ of $20\%$ annually and $53\%$ monthly to account for higher risk. Using a WACC of $25\%$ and $30\%$ and other numbers in the case, what is Blue Apron$$s new, high$-$risk CLV based on the one$-$ and two$-$segment models?