A stock is worth 50 and the current 1-year risk free rate is 1%. A call option with a strike of 55 and 1-year to maturity has a premium of 2. A put option also exists with 1-year to maturity, the same strike price and a premium of 6.46 (to the nearest penny). Are there arbitrage opportunities available in this scenario? Explain how you have come to this judgement and the reasoning that underlies your logic. What are the potential shortcomings of the logic that you are using, if any