a)Explicate the reasons a) a currency depreciation decreases the profitability of a foreign investment (NPV), if the only action that occurs is the depreciation of the currency (rupiah.) This is exemplified by the case of the Semen investment in Indonesia.

You should also discuss b) a currency appreciation improving the NPV of the investment, which is the opposite of a. Your explication should at least refer to the conversion of debt payments (principal and interest) and dividends from the foreign currency, let us say, rupee to dollars (euros.). Everything else presuppose remains constant (ceteris paribus.)

*2***. In problem one, the assumption is the $ revalued against the rupee as indicated in the problem, and that the euro and the $ move together, in lockstep, in terms of the ER. Presuppose additionally, we know the euro and the $ revalue against the rupee by what is indicated in problem one, and the $ and euro continue to appreciate against the rupee for the next 20 years. Before we presupposed the sales to Europe do not alter due to the rupee depreciation. However, now we make a huge change in the assumptions. How would the results of problem one alter, if we assume that sales from India to Europe rise inter temporally for 20 years. Furthermore, presuppose the price elasticity of demand is - 4 for the product in Europe (how European customers see it.) Elaborate on the possible altered effect of the NPV of the Indian investment.

PLEASE ANSWER QUESTION 2 ONLY AND ANSWER IN AT LEAST 500 WORDS