An election to irrevocably designate a financial asset to have a certain financial instrument classification different from how it would otherwise be classified can be made for which of the following?

a) A financial asset that would otherwise be measured at FVPL will be measured at FVOCI.

b) A financial asset that would otherwise be measured at amortized cost will be measured at FVPL.

c) A financial asset that would otherwise be measured at FVOCI will be measured at amortized cost if it reduces a measurement or recognition inconsistency.

d) A financial asset that would otherwise be measured at FVOCI will be measured at FVPL if it reduces a measurement or recognition inconsistency.

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I chose B as we can change equity to profit/loss according to IAS 21, The Effects of Changes in Foreign Exchange Rates. Can someone confirm that I am correct. If not can someone explain why not and which one is the correct answer and why.