An investor invests her wealth in a risky asset with the following subjective distributions. Assuming she pays $$600,000$ and the returns are normal distribution, what is the value at risk $($VaR in US dollar$)$ corresponding to a probability of $5\%($Expressed in terms of deviation from the mean, the $5\%$ is just $-1\mathrm{.}64485)?$ Please interpret the results.

$\backslash$table$[[$State$,$Prob. Of State,Return$],[$Normal$,40\mathrm{.}0\%,8\mathrm{.}00\%$