Aquinas doesn$$t clearly state that lending at interest is a sin for Catholics$$instead$,$ he uses the phrase $$a sin of injustice.$$ He means by this, that the $$tolerate and amend$$ policy does not make lending at interest a sin$.$

Aquinas doesn$$t clearly state that lending at interest is a sin for Catholics$$instead$,$ he uses the phrase $$a sin of injustice.$$ He means by this, that the $$tolerate and amend$$ policy does not make lending at interest a sin$.$

True

False