As part of an assessment for navigation, a professor has his students take a written test. He teaches two sections of the class. The variance and standard deviations for test 1 and test 2 scores are shown below. What do the results say about the relative homogeneity of the two classes? Assume these are samples of a much larger population. MY THOUGHTS: I found the difference of the 2 standard deviations and came to the deduction that their is no homgeneity. Did I do that correctly? Also, I really want to be able to understand what it could mean that the tests were so different from one another...what is a potential example of why this might happen? Summary statistics: Column Variance Std. dev. Test 1 858.26786 29.296209 Summary statistics: Column Variance Std. dev. Test 2 45.071429 6.7135258