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Assume that you have a sample of n1=4, wither sample mean X1=49, and a sample standard deviation of S1=5, and you have an independent sample

Assume that you have a sample of n1=4, wither sample mean X1=49, and a sample standard deviation of S1=5, and you have an independent sample of n2=5 from another population with a sample mean of X2 =36 and a sample standard deviation S2=6. Assuming the population variances are equal, at the 0.01level of significance, is there evidence that m1>m2?

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