Assume the board of directors really likes a lower WACC, and decides to change the firms long-run debt capital structure to 60%. This decision was made despite the firms lender stating being more leveraged will significantly elevate the lenders risk exposure because the firms default risk will skyrocket. Do you think they will actually realize the lower WACC you calculated in part (c where WACC is 8.2%)? Why or why not? Hint: Consider what the lender might do in response to a 60% debt capital structure.