Assuming you have $1,000,000$ of USD, what will profits be if an arbitrage opportunity exists when you observe the following FX rates: The USD$-$EUR rate is $$1\mathrm{.}20/,$ the USD$-$GBP rate is $$1\mathrm{.}80/$ and EUR$/$GBP is $1\mathrm{.}5/.$ Keep you answer to a whole number?