Business Research Methodology-

Question Bank 1

1. When the marketing department of an organization attempts to determine the amount of time the managers in this department spend at their computers in their offices each week, this is an example of which type of research?

a. Pure research

b. Basic research

c. Applied research

d. Causal research

2. High anonymity of respondent, easy follow-up for "call back," and low to moderate response rates are characteristic of __________ surveys.

a. telephone

b. personal interview

c. mail

d. none of the above

3. Internet surveys allow marketers to do all of the following EXCEPT

a. reach a large audience from around the globe.

b. to personalize individual messages.

c. to secure answers in a simple manner.

d. to share one respondent's answers with another respondent

4. When a researcher pretends to be a customer on a United Airlines flight between New York and Los Angeles so that he can complain to a flight attendant about her poor customer service (when, in reality, the service has been satisfactory), this is an example of:

a. a contrived observation.

b. a mechanical observation.

c. content analysis.

d. response latency.

5. The amount of time that a subject takes to make a choice between two alternatives is called:

a. response latency.

b. scientifically contrived observation.

c. hidden observation.

d. galvanic skin response (GSR).

6. Tracking the percentage of women on the cover of Time magazine over the period 1980-2000 is an example of:

a. response latency.

b. hidden observation.

c. the use of a mystery shopper.

d. content analysis.

7. Which of the following statements about observation is FALSE?

a. Observation methods may be utilized to record spatial relations and locations.

b. Observation methods often are unobtrusive.

c. Observation allows for the systematic recording of behavioral intentions and attitudes.

d. Observation studies may amplify the results of other forms of research by providing complementary or supplemental evidence.

8. All of the following statements adequately describe direct observation EXCEPT:

a. The observer plays a passive role and does not attempt to manipulate a situation.

b. Many types of data may be obtained more accurately than through questioning.

c. The observer is recording events instantaneously.

d. The observer always interacts openly with the subject.

9. "Does the size of the package affect the amount of the product which is consumed?" is a question that should best be studied through:

a. exploratory research.

b. descriptive research.

c. experimental research.

d. focus group research.

10. An experimenter has some degree of control over the:

a. independent variable.

b. correlative variable.

c. history effect.

d. All of the above, if the experiment is conducted properly.

11. If a researcher wants to answer the question: "Will adult women (ages 25-49) use more of a cooking oil when it is in a full container or a half-empty one?", the best type of study to use would be a(n):

a. descriptive study.

b. experimental study.

c. exploratory study.

d. focus group study.

12. In a human resources training study, "manager turnover" is most likely to be a(n):

a. independent variable.

b. dependent variable.

c. control group variable.

d. random assignment variable.

13. In terms of internal validity, a large layoff of middle-level managers during a research study would have what type of extraneous variable?

a. History

b. Maturation

c. Testing

d. Instrumentation

14. The after-only with control group design eliminates the problems of:

a. selection bias and mortality.

b. mortality and testing.

c. testing and instrumentation.

d. selection bias and testing.

15. An experiment that investigates long-term structural change is:

a. the static group design.

b. the Solomon four-group design.

c. a time series design.

d. a Latin square design.

16. An experimental researcher manipulated advertising (high versus low) and price (high versus low). When advertising was high and price was high there was not much of an influence on sales volume, but when advertising was high and price was low, there was a great influence on sales volume. This indicates:

a. a main effect for advertising.

b. a main effect for price.

c. an interaction effect.

d. a factorial effect.

17. Employee turnover during a research study has the most effect on which of the following factors which affect the internal validity of the study?

a. Mortality

b. Testing

c. Instrumentation

d. History

18. If the researcher is attempting to answer the question: "Will the test market results in Kansas City hold true in California?", the researcher is most concerned with:

a. the history effect.

b. internal validity.

c. external validity.

d. mortality.

19. When a prior measurement affects a test unit's response to the experiment, we might say that __________ occurs.

a. testing effect

b. sensitizing

c. prioritizing

d. maturation

20. The characteristic that differentiates true experimental design from quasi-experimental design is:

a. the use of a control group.

b. random assignment of subjects to experimental groups.

c. multiple observations.

d. all of the above.

21. From the standpoint of the Bureau of Labor Statistics, the term "labor force" is a(n):

a. rule of measurement.

b. concept.

c. interval scale.

d. invalid attribute.

22. A company's Human Resources department distributes a survey which asks employees to rate their current benefits as "excellent," "good," "fair," or "poor." This is an example of a(n):

a. nominal scale.

b. interval scale.

c. ratio scale.

d. ordinal scale.

23. When a supervisor is asked to rate each of his subordinates on a 5-point scale where 1 (one) means that the worker is unsatisfactory and 5 means that the worker is exceptional, this is an example of which type of scale?

a. Ratio scale

b. Interval scale

c. Ordinal scale

d. Nominal scale

24. "Dollars" represents which type of scale?

a. Nominal scale

b. Ordinal scale

c. Interval scale

d. Ratio scale

25. Which of the following statements about an interval scale is FALSE?

a. It has the properties of an ordinal scale.

b. It uniquely classifies by providing numbers that serve as labels for identification.

c. It has an absolute zero point.

d. It has the properties of a nominal scale.

26. The statement "our brand has a 20 percent market share," implies __________ data.

a. nominal

b. ordinal

c. interval

d. ratio

27. Calculating the mean is permissable for _____ or _____ scales, but is not permissable for _____ or _____ scales.

a. interval; nominal; ordinal; ratio

b. ratio; interval; nominal; ordinal

c. ordinal; interval; ratio; nominal

d. nominal; interval; ratio; ordinal

28. When several experts say that a measure provides adequate coverage of the concept, a measure has ___________ validity.

a. concurrent

b. content

c. criterion

d. apparent

29. Which of the following is NOT a component of an attitude?

a. Affective

b. Cognitive

c. Behavioral

d. Semantic

30. In constructing a semantic differential scale

a. midpoint descriptors are used.

b. bipolar adjectives are used.

c. (n-l)/2 comparisons must be made.

d. None of the above are used.

31. What type of scale is being used in the following item?

Please tell us how satisfied you are with your purchase of your Ford Escort.

Very Very

Satisfied 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 Dissatisfied

a. Likert

b. Semantic differential

c. Comparative rating

d. Numerical

32. What type of scale is being used when a company asks its managers to distribute their benefits so that they add up to 50 points using the following scale

____ Dental plan

____ Retirement plan

____ Health care plan

____ Child care plan

a. Likert scale

b. Semantic differential scale

c. Constant sum scale

d. Ranking scale

33. What type of question is the following:

Name four brands of automobile tires that you would consider purchasing if you were in the market for a new set of tires for your car?

a. Leading question

b. Loaded question

c. Fixed-alternative question

d. Open-ended question

34. When respondents believe that past events happened more recently than they actually did, this is called __________.

a. squishing.

b. funnel technique.

c. frequency determination.

d. telescoping.

35. The formal, objective measurement and appraisal of the extent to which a given action, activity, or program has achieved its objectives is called:

a. basic research.

b. evaluation research.

c. scientific research.

d. applied research.

36. The Pure/Basic research is research that:

a. addresses simple issues that are basic and research is not really needed.

b. attempts to expand the limits of knowledge for a discipline.

c. is conducted to make a decision about a specific real life problem.

d. all of the above

37. Which statement best describes the nature of basic research?

a. Basic research requires the use of experimentation.

b. The primary purpose of basic research is to facilitate the managerial decision process.

c. Basic research is conducted to verify the acceptability of a given theory.

d. Because basic research is exploratory, it does not require the use of scientific methodology.

38. When Colgate-Palmolive Co. tracks the sale of its health and beauty aids in discount stores by utilizing the information provided by scanners at the checkout lines, this is an example of which type of research?

a. Basic research

b. Performance-monitoring research

c. Pure research

d. Intuitive research

39. The term __________ research describes research that regularly, perhaps routinely, provides feedback for evaluation and control of business activity.

a. decision support

b. performance-monitoring

c. causal

d. analysis

40. When Ford Motor Co. brings together representatives from R&D, Finance, Marketing, Sales, and Marketing Research to work together on the design of a new type of automobile, this is an example of the use of

a. basic research.

b. pure research.

c. cross-functional teams.

d. evaluation research.

41. Which type of research study is attempting to answer the question "Would members of this target market be interested in purchasing this new type of product?"

a.

Descriptive research

b.

Causal research

c.

Exploratory research

d.

Definitive research

42. If we want to clarify the nature of problems, we would conduct __________ research.

a. clarification

b. exploratory

c. descriptive

d. causal

43. The text presents the following quote from the book Zen and the Art of Motorcycle

Maintenance: "In Part One of formal scientific method...the main skill is in stating absolutely no more than you are positive you know." This describes which step in applying the scientific method?

a .Analysis and evaluation of data

b. Providing explanation and stating new problems raised by the research

c. Assessment of relevant existing knowledge

d. Designing the research to test the hypothesis

44. When comparing the typical door-to-door personal interview with the typical mail survey, personal interviews are more appropriately described by each of these characteristics EXCEPT

a. greater speed of data collection.

b. higher respondent cooperation.

c. higher possibility of respondent misunderstanding.

d. greater versatility of question format (questioning).

45. Which of the following statements conceding the participation rate for personal interviews, compared to mail surveys, is FALSE?

a. The presence of an interviewer generally increases the percentage of people willing to respond.

b. Hispanics, regardless of education, frequently prefer oral to written communication.

c. Certain groups, such as older, retired persons, are often over-represented.

d. Type of residential unit, such as high security apartment buildings, usually has a positive impact on response rates.

46. If 400 people are mailed a questionnaire and 120 of them return it to the researcher, this survey is said to have a response rate of

a. 120.

b. 3.33.

c. 30 percent.

d. 400.

47. Which of the following survey methods typically ranks HIGHEST on standardization of questioning?

a. Personal

b. Mail

c. Telephone

d. All rank about the same

48. The type of survey method which typically ranks highest on response rates is

a. Personal.

b. Mail.

c. Telephone.

d. All rank about the same.

49. If 800 people are mailed a survey and 230 of them return it to the researcher, the survey is said to have a response rate of

a. 230.

b. 800.

c. 3.48.

d. 28.8 percent.

50. A researcher who is investigating consumer reactions to a videotape of a proposed television commercial is most likely to use

a. telephone interviews.

b. door-to-door interviews.

c. mall intercept interviews.

d. self-administered questionnaires.

51. When comparing telephone interviews to door-to-door personal interviews, telephone interviews are more appropriately described by each of these characteristics EXCEPT

a. faster speed of data collection.

b. greater geographic flexibility.

c. lower possibility for respondent misunderstanding.

d. easier call-back or follow-up.

52. Which of the following should be included in the cover letter of a mail survey?

a. Assurance of confidentiality of the data

b. An incentive for participation in the study

c. Assurance that the survey will only take a few minutes

d. A description of how the individual was selected to participate

53. The following question:

Should Lord & Taylor continue its excellent gift wrapping program?

____Yes ____ No

a. is a double-barreled question.

b. has a built-in assumption.

c. is a counterbiasing statement.

d. all of the above.

54. A questionnaire is said to be __________ if no unnecessary information is collected and if the information needed to solve the business problem is obtained.

a. complete

b. relevant

c. finished

d. correct

55. What type of question is the following?

Did you make any local or long-distance calls from your home last week?

____ yes ____ no

a. Double-barreled

b. Leading

c. Loaded

d. Funnel

56. Open-ended questions:

a. make good introductory questions during an interview.

b. limit the range of choices available to respondents.

c. increase interviewer bias.

d. require little respondent effort.

57. What type of question is the following?

Do you agree or disagree with this statement: "The recession is caused by inflation and unemployment."

a. Leading

b. Misleading

c. Double-barreled

d. Checklist

58. When using the Internet, if you need to click beside either a "Yes" or a "No" response to fill in the circle that is next to one of these choices to indicate your answer to the question, this type of prompt is called:

a. a split-ballot prompt.

b. a radio button.

c. a check list button.

d. a complex choice button.

59. In developing a questionnaire, which of the following is NOT a useful guideline:

a. avoid loaded questions.

b. be as general as possible.

c. avoid double-barreled items.

d. use simple, conversational language.

60. Quota sampling

a. involves taking a stratified sample in which the number of sampling units drawn from each stratum is in proportion to the relative population size of that stratum.

b. ensures that certain characteristics of a population sample will be represented to the exact extent that the researcher desires.

c. obtains units or people who are most conveniently available.

d. selects an initial starting point by a random process, and then selects every nth number on the list.

61. Secondary sampling units are

a. units selected during preliminary stages of testing.

b. units that are weeded out due to random sampling error.

c. units selected in the second stage of sampling.

d. samples that consist of inanimate objects only, rather than people.

62. A disproportional stratified sample

a. involves taking a stratified sample in which the number of sampling units drawn from each stratum is in proportion to the relative population size of that stratum.

b. is a stratified sample in which the sample size for each stratum is allocated according to analytical considerations.

c. obtains units or people who are most conveniently available.

d. selects an initial starting point by a random process, and then selects every nth number on the list.

63. If we are experimenting with different forms of advertising copy appeals, the

dependent variable might be defined as:

a. a measure of advertising awareness.

b. recall.

c. change in brand preference.

d. any of these.

64. If, during the course of an experiment, subjects change in some way that will have an impact on the experimental results, the effect is referred to as:

a. history.

b. maturation.

c. selection.

d. mortality.

65. In a test marketing study of a new type of instant tea, sales volume (as measured by dollar sales) is most likely to be a(n):

a. Random variable.

b. Independent variable.

c. Control variable.

d. Dependent variable.

66. In a test marketing study, initial trial purchase is most likely to be a(n):

a. independent variable.

b. control variable.

c. dependent variable.

d. external variable

67. If the interviewers are changed during a research study, this would have what type of effect on the extraneous variables?

a. Testing effect

b. History effect

c. Selection bias

d. Instrumentation

68. An automobile dealer, after a very cold winter, found himself with a very large

inventory. He experimented with offering a free trip to Chicago (X) with every car sold. He recorded sales (O) after the promotion. This is an example of:

a. an after only design.

b. before-after design.

c. control design.

d. a completely randomized design.

69. A researcher uses a cartoon drawing to which the respondent suggests dialogue that the cartoon characters might speak. This is an example of:

a. a focus group.

b. sentence completion.

c. thematic apperception testing.

d. None of these

70. Focus groups of employees:

a. should always be led by co-workers.

b. should include employees with their supervisors in the same group.

c. can be a valuable technique for improving a company's operations.

d. Should be saving lot of time

71. With respect to research design:

a. case studies may be used in both descriptive and exploratory research.

b. experimentation may be used in exploratory research.

c. case studies may be used in both descriptive research and experimentation.

d. descriptive research may be categorized as either conclusive research or experimentation.

72. In which of the following situations would an exploratory study NOT be appropriate?

a. Analyzing selected causes or cases

b. Conversations with individuals who have relevant information

c. Defining relationships so that hypotheses may be formulated

d. Measuring a brand's share of the market

73. As experiments _____ in naturalism, they approach pure _____ experiments, and as they become _____ artificial, they approach _____ experiments.

a. increase; field; less; laboratory

b. decrease; field; less; laboratory

c. increase; field; more; laboratory

d. decrease; field; more; laboratory

74. Consider the following question:

"If you own your own home, what is its approximate value?"

Under $50,000

$50,000 - $70,000

$70,000 - $100,000

$100,000 - $150,000

Which of the following is NOT a valid criticism?

a. Categories are not mutually exclusive.

b. List of alternatives is not collectively exhaustive.

c. Two questions are being asked as one.

d. All are valid criticisms.

75. Calculate the sample mean using the following data:

X

4

5

2

6

4

3

4

The mean is:

a. 7.0

b. 3.0

c. 4.0

d. none of the above

76. Calculate the sample standard deviation using the following data:

X

4

5

2

6

The sample standard deviation is approximately:

a. 0.84.

b. 1.71.

c. 2.25.

d. none of the above.

77. Calculate the standard deviation using the following data:

X

6

4

3

2

The standard deviation is:

a. 0.84.

b. 1.25.

c. 1.71.

d. none of the above.

78. In attempting to estimate the amount of money which members of a target market segment spend yearly on toothpaste, a researcher wants to use a Z-value of 1.96 and an error of $0.50. If past research studies have found that the standard deviation for this type of study on this target market segment has been approximately $2.34, approximately what sample size should the researcher use in this study?

a. 123

b. 64

c. 85

d. None of the above

79. If p = .40 for a sample size of 100, the standard error of the proportion is approximately:

a. 0.05.

b. 0.03.

c. 0.07.

d. none of the above.

80. In a percentage cross-tabulation, the total number of respondents or observations may be used as a(n) __________ for computing the percentage in each cell.

a. index

b. base

c. centroid

d. none of the above

81. Which of the following statements about descriptive analysis is FALSE?

a. For most projects, statistical analysis begins by reducing the raw data into a summary format.

b. Tabulation refers to the orderly arrangement of data in a table or other summary format.

c. Analyzing results by groups or categories is the technique of tabulation.

d. A frequency table is the arrangement of statistical data in a row and column format.

82. A Type II error is caused by failing to reject the __________ when the __________ is true.

a. alternative hypothesis; null hypothesis

b. significance level; hypothesis

c. Type I error; hypothesis

d. null hypothesis; alternative hypothesis

83. If the t-statistic produces a value for t of 2.56 when the critical value of t is 1.96, the decision should be:

a. to accept the null hypothesis.

b. to accept both the null hypothesis and the alternative hypothesis.

c. to reject the null hypothesis and accept the alternative hypothesis.

d. to reject both the null hypothesis and the alternative hypothesis.

84. If the observed value of t is 1.54 when the critical value of t is 1.96, the decision should be:

a. to reject the null hypothesis and accept the alternative hypothesis.

b. to accept both the null hypothesis and the alternative hypothesis.

c. to reject both the null hypothesis and the alternative hypothesis.

d. to accept the null hypothesis.

85. When the means of more than two groups or populations are to be compared on one independent variable, __________ is the appropriate statistical tool.

a. the t-test

b. two-way ANOVA

c. one-way analysis of variance

d. a pooled estimate of the standard error

86. The greater the value of F

a. the greater the sample size.

b. the greater the total variation.

c. the greater the probability of accepting the null hypothesis.

d. the greater the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis.

87. The F-test is frequently used in conjunction with

a. chi-square analysis.

b. analysis of variance.

c. t-test of three means.

d. Z-test of three proportions.

88. When the data relating to two variables are simultaneously tabulated by categories, the simplest procedure to use is

a. ANOVA.

b. regression.

c. correlation.

d. cross-tabulation.

89. The formula below represents the method for calculating the ______ .

a. Z-test.

b. F-test.

c. Chi-square test.

d. none of the above.

90. In the formula Y = a + X, X represents:

a. the independent variable.

b. the dependent variable.

c. the slope coefficient.

d. the Y-intercept.

91. The case study method has several distinct advantages over other methods of

descriptive research. Which of the following is NOT one of those advantages?

a. Data are often more accurate because of more intimate association between researcher and respondent.

b. It provides a description of a real situation.

c. It is an objective tool for observing and recording.

d. It gives an in depth details of a subject unit

92. One of the following research methods differs from other methods because it gives the researcher a high degree of control over the research situation. Which is it?

a. Surveys

b. Experiments

c. Observation studies

d. Secondary data studies

93. Basic research is research that:

a. addresses simple issues that are basic and research is not really needed.

b. attempts to expand the limits of knowledge for a discipline.

c. is conducted to make a decision about a specific real life problem.

d. all of the above

94. Which statement best describes the nature of basic research?

a. Basic research requires the use of experimentation.

b. The primary purpose of basic research is to facilitate the managerial decision process.

c. Basic research is conducted to verify the acceptability of a given theory.

d. Because basic research is exploratory, it does not require the use of scientific methodology.

95. When a marketing manager makes an important decision because there is not sufficient time to conduct a research project, this is an example of:

a. a situation in which the value of the research exceeds its costs.

b. the nature of the type of decision (tactical or strategic) that must be made.

c. a time constraint.

d. the availability of data.

96. Which of the following is an example of a major topic for business research?

a. A buyer behavior research study

b. A job morale study

c. A market segmentation study

d. All of these

97. When Ford Motor Co. brings together representatives from R&D, Finance, Marketing, Sales, and Marketing Research to work together on the design of a new type of automobile, this is an example of the use of

a. basic research.

b. pure research.

c. cross-functional teams.

d. evaluation research.

98. Whether business research should be conducted is determined by each of the following EXCEPT:

a. employees' attitudes toward the subject of the research.

b. time constraints.

c. the nature of the decision to be made.

d. the benefits of the research in relation to its costs.

99. A pilot study is

a. an extremely rigorous research design involving formal methods for collecting data.

b. a small-scale exploratory research technique that uses informal data collection methods.

c. a good example of backward linkage.

d. always the best way to approach business research situations.

100. The four research design techniques for descriptive and causal research are

a. focus groups, surveys, pilot studies, and experiments.

b. focus groups, surveys, experiments, and observation.

c. secondary data studies, surveys, experiments, and observation.

d. secondary data, focus groups, surveys, and experiments.

101. Relative to the decision-making process, at what point should business research enter the process?

a. Problem discovery and definition

b. Alternative formulation

c. Evaluation of alternatives

d. Implementation

102. Any procedure that uses a small number of items or people to make a conclusion regarding a larger group known as the population is called

a. statistics.

b. sampling.

c. surveying.

d. probability theory.

103. Which type of research study is attempting to answer the question "Which of two sales training programs is more effective?"

a. Exploratory

b. Descriptive

c. Causal

d. Mall-intercept

104. If the research problem were defined as "Will buyers purchase more of the product in a red or blue colored package?", the most appropriate type of research would be

a. exploratory.

b. descriptive.

c. causal.

d. associative.

105. To be most useful, how should research objectives be stated?

a. They should be stated as broadly as possible to permit flexibility in applying the research.

b. They should be stated as precisely as possible to avoid misapplying the research.

c. Usually it makes little difference whether they are broadly or precisely stated as long as the objective is clear.

d. Most research does not need a stated objective because the nature of the problem implies the objective.

106. The appropriate research strategy to determine the demographic characteristics of owners of Ford Explorer SUVs would be

a. descriptive design.

b. exploratory design.

c. simulation.

d. field experiment.

107. Research designs may be categorized according to their fundamental objective. Which of the following are research design categories?

a. scientific, exploratory, descriptive

b. descriptive, research, experimental

c. descriptive, causal, exploratory

d. experimental, experience, exploratory

108. Which of the following is designed to develop ideas and insights in decision-making situations, especially when only limited knowledge is currently available?

a. Secondary research

b. Experimental research

c. Survey research

d. Exploratory research

109. Which of the following is an advantage of secondary data as compared with primary data?

a. Obtainable from reliable suppliers

b. Usually less expensive

c. Usually available in less time

d. All of these are advantages.

110. Which of the following is NOT a step in the process of problem definition?

a. obtain permission from interested parties to research the problem

b. ascertain the decision maker's objectives

c. understand the background of the problem

d. determine the unit of analysis

111. Hypotheses have considerable practical value in planning and designing the research because

a. they force researchers to be clear about what they expect to find through the study.

b. the formal statement raises crucial questions about required data.

c. expected relationships among variables are expressed.

d. all the statements are true.

112. High cost, lower standardization of questioning, and limited geographic dispersion are disadvantages of __________ surveys.

a. telephone

b. personal interview

c. mail

d. mall intercept

113. Who among the following are LEAST likely to respond to a mail survey?

a. Individuals interested in the general subject matter of the survey

b. People who hold extreme positions on the survey topic

c. Less educated respondents

d. Those who receive a follow-up questionnaire

114. If 400 people are mailed a questionnaire and 120 of them return it to the researcher, this survey is said to have a response rate of

a. 120.

b. 3.33.

c. 30 percent.

d. 400.

115. Which type of research study is attempting to answer the question "Which of two sales training programs is more effective?"

a. Exploratory

b. Descriptive

c. Causal

d. Mall-intercept

116. An exploratory research design would be LEAST likely to be used to

a. create a more precise formulation of a problem.

b. clarify a basic concept.

c. increase familiarization with a problem.

d. describe the characteristics of a certain group.

117. Which of the following is designed to develop ideas and insights in decision-making situations, especially when only limited knowledge is currently available?

a. Secondary research

b. Experimental research

c. Survey research

d. Exploratory research

118. Which of the following statements concerning secondary data is FALSE?

a. Secondary data sources should be considered before primary data are collected.

b. Internal secondary data are usually preferred to external secondary data.

c. Data needed to complete a research project are usually attainable as secondary data.

d. Secondary data are available from commercial sources.

119. The number of automobiles that drive over a "counter cable" in the road near a proposed site for a convenience store is an example of

a. secondary data collection.

b. exploratory research.

c. an observation study.

d. an experiment.

120. Turnover will be higher among employees who perceive themselves as underpaid, than among employees who perceive themselves as paid fairly. This sentence is an example of

a. a categorical relationship.

b. a research objective.

c. a research question.

d. a hypothesis.

121. Which of the following is NOT a step in the process of problem definition?

a. obtain permission from interested parties to research the problem

b. ascertain the decision maker's objectives

c. understand the background of the problem

d. determine the unit of analysis

122. A survey question about gender, to be answered with either "M" or "F," represents a(n)

a. categorical variable.

b. unknown variable.

c. dependent variable.

d. continuous variable.

123. The goal of defining the problem is

a. to state the research question clearly.

b. to have a single hypothesis.

c. to translate a research problem into a managerial problem.

d. to initiate exploratory research.

124. According to the textbook, the most important reason for NOT beginning the formal quantitative research process is

a. the budget is unspecified.

b. top management has not given approval.

c. the research department is overburdened with project requests.

d. the problem has not been clearly defined.

125. There are several advantages to focus groups. Which of the following is NOT an advantage?

a. synergism

b. snowballing

c. spontaneity

d. sentence completion

126. Qualitative research:

a. is essentially the same as quantitative research.

b. generally employs rigorous mathematical analysis.

c. is subjective in nature.

d. is objective in nature.

127. A researcher uses a cartoon drawing to which the respondent suggests dialogue that the cartoon characters might speak. This is an example of:

a. a focus group.

b. sentence completion.

c. thematic apperception testing.

d. word association.

128. Discussion, such as informal conversations, with knowledgeable people, both inside and outside the company, are:

a. knowledge acquisitions.

b. mainstream conversations.

c. experience surveys.

d. pilot studies.

129. Which of the following is NOT a reason why exploratory research is conducted?

a. prospecting for clients

b. screening alternatives

c. discovering new ideas

d. diagnosing a situation

130. Which of the following is a projective technique?

a. depth interview

b. focus group

c. experience survey

d. none of these

131. When the researcher obtains information from one or a few situations similar to the researcher's problem, the research technique is referred to as a(n):

a. focus group method.

b. case study method.

c. specific observation method.

d. specific experience method.

132. Three purposes for exploratory research are to:

a. diagnose a situation, screen alternatives, discover new ideas.

b. diagnose a situation, screen alternatives, provide quantification.

c. discover new ideas, diagnose a situation, provide quantification.

d. discover new ideas, screen ideas, provide quantification.

133. An exploratory research technique in which individuals who are knowledgeable about a particular research problem are questioned is a(n):

a. experience survey.

b. focus group.

c. projective technique.

d. pilot study.

134. A __________ is an unstructured free-flowing interview with a group of 6 to 10 participants.

a. group dynamic session

b. serendipity session

c. funnel group

d. focus group

135. Which of the following statements does NOT adequately describe focus groups?

a. A snowballing effect often occurs where one individual often triggers a chain of responses from other participants.

b. The session begins when each individual in turn is asked to answer the 5 to 10 questions from a standardized list.

c. The flexibility of the group is an advantage.

d. All of the above adequately describe focus groups.

136. When a respondent is asked to complete the following statement: "A supervisor should not ________," this is an example of:

a. a poor test structure.

b. the word association technique.

c. the third-person technique.

d. the sentence completion method.

137. In investigating situations where interpersonal relationships are the subject of the research, the __________ technique is particularly useful.

a. word association

b. focus group interview

c. role playing

d. depth interview

138. When a worker is asked to perform a task as if she were the supervisor in that work situation, this is an example of:

a. a focus group interview.

b. the case study method.

c. the TAT projective techniques.

d. role-playing

139. Which of the following is a good way to verify the accuracy of secondary data?

a. Intuition

b. Cross-checks from multiple sources

c. The Internet

d. None of the above

140. Which type of secondary data is needed to answer the question "How many consumers of ages 18-35 live in zip code 63119?

a. Fact-finding

b. Data mining

c. Model building

d. None of the above

141. An organization's market share equals

a. revenues divided by net income.

b. sales times profit.

c. company sales divided by industry sales.

d. industry sales divided by company sales.

142. Which of the following is a characteristic of data from the Bureau of the Census?

a. A reputation for poor quality

b. Not detailed enough for market research

c. Unavailable to the public

d. None are characteristics

143. The Census of Population is an example of which type of external secondary data source?

a. Trade association source

b. Government source

c. Books and periodicals

d. Commercial source

144. Which of the following is NOT a common problem with secondary data?

a. Outdated information

b. Variation in definition of terms

c. Different units of measurement

d. Takes too long to collect

145. The Wall Street Journal is an example of which type of external secondary data source?

a. Books and periodicals

b. Commercial source

c. Trade association source

d. Media source

146. Which of the following is NOT an example of data processing error?

a. choosing an unrepresentative sample

b. typographical errors during data entry

c. accidentally combining answers from two respondents during data entry

d. inaccurate computer software

147. Most survey research is __________ in nature.

a. descriptive

b. causal

c. exploratory

d. cross-sectional

148. When an interviewer asks a respondent "What do you mean by that?, this is an example of a(n)

a. probing question.

b. pretest.

c. CATI.

d. item nonresponse.

149. If we count the number of questionnaires returned in a survey, and divide this total by the number of eligible people who were asked to participate, we have calculated the

a. CATI.

b. response rate.

c. sponsorship rate.

d. cohort coefficient.

150. When interviewers ask for clarification or expansion of answers to standardized questions, we call this

a. qualifying.

b. standardizing.

c. probing.

d. conversing.

151. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the personal interview?

a. High participation rate

b. Anonymity of respondents

c. Good opportunity to probe

d. Ability to use visual aids

152. A researcher who is investigating consumer reactions to a videotape of a proposed television commercial is most likely to use

a. telephone interviews.

b. door-to-door interviews.

c. mall intercept interviews.

d. self-administered questionnaires.

153. Which of the following should be included in the cover letter of a mail survey?

a. Assurance of confidentiality of the data

b. An incentive for participation in the study

c. Assurance that the survey will only take a few minutes

d. A description of how the individual was selected to participate

154. Geographic dispersion is a DISADVANTAGE of __________ surveys.

a. telephone

b. personal interview

c. mail

d. none of these

155. Once an Internet questionnaire has been developed

a. the incremental cost of additional respondents is marginal.

b. the anonymity of the Internet encourages respondents to provide honest answers to sensitive questions.

c. re-contacting those who have not completed the survey is quick and easy.

d. all these statements are true.

156. Investigation of household trash in Arizona shows that the most popular baby food in Hispanic households is squash, while peas are the baby food winner in Anglo households. This is an example of:

a. ethical issues in observation research.

b. participant observation.

c. voice pitch analysis.

d. physical-trace evidence.

157. If a researcher wanted to measure unconscious eye movements of subjects, she could use a(n):

a. eye-tracking monitor.

b. psychogalvanometer.

c. unconsciometer.

d. none of the above could be used.

158. Hidden, unobtrusive observation is often used because:

a. respondent error is minimized.

b. subjects are aware they are being observed.

c. it raises ethical questions.

d. the observer is often well-known to the subjects.

159. The formal, objective measurement and appraisal of the extent to which a given action,activity, or program has achieved its objectives is called:

a. Basic research.

b. Evaluation research

c. Motivational research

d. Applied research

160. All of the following describe physiological measures of observation EXCEPT:

a. pupilometer.

b. eye-tracking..

c. voice-pitch analysis.

d. participant observation.

161. If subjects change their normal behavior in order to cooperate with the experimenter, affecting the results of the experiment, this is called:

a. the double-blind effect.

b. the guinea pig effect.

c. experimenter bias.

d. the interaction effect.

162. If there is a change in the presentation of unit price information (the __________ variable) had caused a change in the average unit price paid (the __________ variable).

a. independent, dependent

b. experimental, independent

c. dependent, independent

d. research, control

163. The purpose of most business research experimentation is to measure and compare the effects of the experimental treatments on the __________ variable.

a. independent

b. dependent

c. control

d. extraneous

164. One of the following research methods differs from other methods because it gives the researcher a high degree of control over the research situation. Which is it?

a. Surveys

b. Experiments

c. Observation studies

d. Secondary data studies

165. The influence of specific events in the external environment that occur between the first and second measurements and are beyond the control of the experimenter is referred to as:

a. selection.

b. testing.

c. maturation.

d. history.

166. In a test marketing study, initial trial purchase is most likely to be a(n):

a. independent variable.

b. control variable.

c. dependent variable.

d. random variable.

167. If a study of factory workers finds that workers perform better on a job assembly task if they had been exposed to another type of job assembly task earlier in the study, the study is said to have which type of bias?

a. Experimenter bias

b. Order of presentation bias

c. Interviewer bias

d. Double-blind bias

168. According to the symbols used in describing experimental designs,

a. X is the application of the experimental treatment.

b. O is the observation of the independent variable.

c. vertical distances represent movements in time.

d. subscripts refer to different test units.

169. In an experiment to measure the impact of pricing on the sales of the product in certain selected supermarket, the dependent variable is:

a. retail format (super market).

b. sales of the product

c. price

d. product

170. In terms of internal validity, a large layoff of middle-level managers during a research study would have what type of extraneous variable?

a. History

b. Maturation

c. Testing

d. Instrumentation

171. If the interviewers are changed during a research study, this would have what type of effect on the extraneous variables?

a. Testing effect

b. History effect

c. Selection bias

d. Instrumentation

172. A static group design:

a. uses two experimental groups.

b. assigns subjects randomly.

c. does not eliminate the "volunteer effect."

d. is often applied in "use tests" for new products.

173. The before-after design with control group is least susceptible to problems of:

a. selection bias.

b. history effect.

c. testing effect.

d. maturation.

174. Which of the following requires randomization of subject assignment?

a. One-group pretest-posttest design.

b. Pretest-posttest control group design.

c. All of the above.

d. None of the above.

175. An automobile dealer, after a very cold winter, found himself with a very large inventory. He experimented with offering a free trip to Chicago (X) with every car sold. He recorded sales (O) after the promotion. This is an example of:

a. a one-shot (after only) design.

b. a static group design.

c. a completely chance design.

d. a completely randomized design.

176. A researcher wishes to simultaneously investigate the package colors blue and green and price levels of $20, $30, and $40 in a factorial experiment. How many cells or test markets will be required?

a.

two

b.

five

c.

six

d.

three

177. If the researcher is attempting to answer the question: "Will the test market results in Kansas City hold true in California?", the researcher is most concerned with:

a.

the history effect.

b.

internal validity.

c.

external validity.

d.

mortality.

178. If age is expected to influence savings behavior, a bank conducting an experiment may have the most assurance that there are no intersubject differences if subjects in all experimental groups:

a.

are customers of the bank.

b.

are matched on age.

c.

are given a pretest.

d.

all of the above.

179. When a prior measurement affects a test unit's response to the experiment, we might say that __________ occurs.

a.

testing effect

b.

sensitizing

c.

prioritizing

d.

maturation

180. A company's Human Resources department distributes a survey which asks employees to rate their current benefits as "excellent," "good," "fair," or "poor." This is an example of a(n):

a.

nominal scale.

b.

interval scale.

c.

ratio scale.

d.

ordinal scale.

181. When similar results are obtained over time and across situations, this is a measure of:

a.

validity.

b.

reliability.

c.

predictive accuracy.

d.

biasness.

182. Which of the following is required for precise measurement in business research?

a.

An operational definition of the concept being measured

b.

A system of consistent rules for assigning numbers

c.

A careful conceptual definition

d.

All of these

183. The concept "brand loyalty" may be operationalized as:

a.

sequences of brands purchased.

b.

number of different brands purchased.

c.

amount of brand deliberation.

d.

all of these.

184. The marks scored by a student is an example of

a.

Ordinal scale

b.

Interval scale.

c.

Ratio scale

d.

Nominal scale

185. "Census Tract 23" is an example of a(n):

a.

nominal scale.

b.

ordinal scale.

c.

interval scale.

d.

ratio scale.

186. Calculating the mean is permissable for _____ or _____ scales, but is not permissable for _____ or _____ scales.

a.

interval; nominal; ordinal; ratio

b.

ratio; interval; nominal; ordinal

c.

ordinal; interval; ratio; nominal

d.

nominal; interval; ratio; ordinal

187. Asking managers to rate each of a set of five career opportunities on a scale from poor to excellent is an example of which type of scale?

a.

Nominal scale.

b.

Ordinal scale

c.

Ratio scale

d.

Interval scale

188. Validity of a measure of an attitude can be best described by the statement:

a.

The attitude scale is reliable.

b.

The attitude scale measures what it is supposed to measure.

c.

The attitude scale has an absolute zero point.

d.

The attitude scale is a logical and reasonable hypothetical construct.

189. If the empirical evidence is consistent with the theoretical logic about the concepts, we have __________ validity.

a.

empirical

b.

criterion

c.

content

d.

construct

190. A concept such as "social class" which is based on a weighted combination of residence, occupation, and education is an example of:

a.

a concept involving a single attribute.

b.

discriminant validity.

c.

extreme sensitivity.

d.

an index measure.

191. Improper assignment of test units to treatment conditions is referred to as:

a. Statistical regression

b. Mortality

c. Selection bias

d. Matching

192. In constructing a semantic differential scale

a.

midpoint descriptors are used.

b.

bipolar adjectives are used.

c.

(n-l)/2 comparisons must be made.

d.

None of the above are used.

193. The following scale is best described as a _____ scale.

Modern_____________________Old-fashioned

a.

Likert

b.

numerical

c.

semantic differential

d.

Stapel

194. All of the following statements about semantic differential scales are true EXCEPT

a.

the semantic differential is actually a series of attitude scales.

b.

the semantic differential uses bipolar adjectives to anchor the beginning and ending of the scale.

c.

the weights assigned to the semantic differential are arbitrary.

d.

the semantic differential uses numbers as response options to identify categories.

195. The following scale is best described as a(n) ______________ scale.

How satisfied are you with the bookstore in the student union?

Satisfied

Neither satisfied nor dissatisfied

Quite dissatisfied

Very dissatisfied

a.

numerical.

b.

unbalanced.

c.

nominal.

d.

comparative.

196. ___________ and ___________ are the two basic criteria to be met if a questionnaire is to achieve the researcher's purpose.

a.

Sensitivity, political correctness

b.

Reliability, validity

c.

Relevance, thoroughness

d.

Relevance, accuracy

197. The difference between laboratory experiments and field experiments is

a. Their cost

b. Their ability to manipulate variables

c. The difference in the test units

d. Their environments

198. Which statement about the questionnaire design stage is FALSE?

a.

Improving the wording of the questionnaire can sometimes contribute far more to improvements than can improvements in sampling.

b.

Questions that differ only by a single word can yield large differences in responses.

c.

Common sense and good grammar are all one needs to construct a questionnaire.

d.

People may simply not understand what is being asked.

199. What type of question is the following?

Did you make any local or long-distance calls from your home last week?

____ yes ____ no

a.

Double-barreled

b.

Leading

c.

Loaded

d.

Funnel

200. What type of question is the following?

Do you agree or disagree with this statement: "The recession is caused by inflation and unemployment."

a.

Leading

b.

Misleading

c.

Double-barreled

d.

Checklist

201. The split-ballot technique can be defined as:

a.

dividing respondents into two groups, according to whether their responses are positive or negative.

b.

designing a questionnaire so that half of the questions are leading and the other half are loaded.

c.

using two alternative phrasings of the same question for respective halves of the sample.

d.

requiring respondents to choose one of two dichotomous alternatives.

202. Structuring the order of the questions on a survey is done to:

a.

insure respondents' cooperation.

b.

eliminate respondent confusion.

c.

aid respondents' memory.

d.

all of these.

203. In terms of preventing order bias in questions, it is usually better to ask ____ questions ____ (before/after) ____ questions if the researcher plans to use the funnel technique.

a.

general; after; specific

b.

specific; before; general

c.

general; after; open-ended

d.

general; before; specific

204. Secondary sampling units are

a.

units selected during preliminary stages of testing.

b.

units that are weeded out due to random sampling error.

c.

units selected in the second stage of sampling.

d.

samples that consist of inanimate objects only, rather than people.

205. Judgment sampling

a.

assures each element in the population an equal chance of being included in the sample.

b.

is a technique in which an experienced researcher selects the sample based upon some appropriate characteristic of the sample members.

c.

draws subsamples from samples within different strata that are more or less equal on some characteristic.

d.

is an economically efficient technique in which the primary sampling unit is not the individual element in the population, but a large cluster of elements.

206. When individuals selected for participation in a shopping mall intercept study refuse to participate in an interview, this is an example of

a.

nonprobability sampling.

b.

a reverse directory.

c.

periodicity.

d.

nonresponse error.

207. If a test unit does not show up for the second observation time period, the study has experienced

a. Mortality

b. Selection bias

c. Instrumentation

d. All of these

208. One of the following research methods differs from other methods because it gives the researcher a high degree of control over the research situation. Which is it?

e. Surveys

f. Experiments

g. Observation studies

h. Secondary data studies

209. A researcher wishes to test a new product flavor by drawing a probability sample so that the proportion of persons in each income bracket and ethnic group selected is the same as the whole population. This is an example of a __________ sample.

a. proportional systematic

b. proportional stratified

c. proportional cluster

d. proportional random

210. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. A researcher using cluster sampling does not need a list of all individuals (sampling units.)

b. In cluster sampling, the primary sampling unit is a cluster of population elements.

c. An area sample is a cluster sample.

d. Travel costs are increased in cluster sampling because the time spent traveling is substantially greater than the time spent interviewing.

211. Simple random sampling

a. assures each element in the population an equal chance of being included in the sample.

b. is a technique in which an experienced researcher selects the sample based upon some appropriate characteristic of the sample members.

c. draws subsamples from samples within different strata that are more or less equal on some characteristic.

d. is an economically efficient technique in which the primary sampling unit is not the individual element in the population, but a large cluster of elements.

212. When a TV newsperson asks a businessperson on a street corner "Do you feel that the President of the United States is doing a good job?", this is an example of a(n) _____ sample.

a. stratified

b. judgment

c. quota

d. convenience

213. When a researcher sets up a computer program to generate a random list of three-digit numbers so that she can study the Savings and Loan Associations in Missouri, this is an example of a(n)

a. simple random sample.

b. systematic sample.

c. nonprobability sample.

d. stratified random sample.

214. A sampling procedure in which initial respondents are selected by probability methods, and then additional respondents are obtained from information provided by initial respondents, is called __________ sampling.

a. semi-random

b. initial

c. quota

d. snowball

215. A researcher tells each interviewer in a mall-intercept study to select a sample consisting of 100 people under age 40 and 50 people aged 40 or older, because these age groups are representative of the desired population. This is an example of a __________ sample.

a. judgment

b. quota

c. proportional stratified

d. random

216. Increases in sample size __________ random sampling error at a(n) __________ rate.

a. increase, increasing

b. increase, decreasing

c. decrease, increasing

d. decrease, decreasing

217. When determining sample size, the heterogeneity of the population is estimated with:

a. the standard deviation of the sample.

b. the confidence interval.

c. the confidence level.

d. level of statistical significance.

218. A specific range of numbers within which a population mean should lie is:

a. the range.

b. the confidence coefficient.

c. the confidence interval.

d. the confidence level.

219. When a business researcher wants to analyze the data for different subgroups of the sample under study, a good rule-of-thumb is that each subgroup should have a minimum of _____ units in each category of the major breakdown.

a. 30

b. 60

c. 100

d. none of the above

220. Which of the following is the symbol for the sample standard deviation?

a. S

b. 2

c.

d. 2

221. Which training topic is being covered when the interviewers are being instructed in how to say "Good evening, my name is ___ ____ and I'm calling from a national research organization in Cleveland?"

a. How to probe

b. How to make initial contact

c. How to ask survey questions

d. How to record responses

222. Which probing technique is being used when an interviewer says to a respondent "Why do you feel that way?"

a. Neutral question

b. Repetition of the respondent's reply

c. Repetition of the question

d. An expectant pause

223. When an interviewee says to an interviewer "I don't know what 'economic downturn' means," what should the interviewer do?

a. Explain in her own words what the term means.

b. Say "Just whatever it means to you."

c. Give an ad lib clarification of the term.

d. None of these.

224. The primary objective of fieldwork training is to insure that

a. data will be collected in a uniform manner.

b. households will be selected in a random manner.

c. all interviewers have an acceptable appearance.

d. none of the above.

225. The "foot-in-the-door" technique

a. is not used by a company sensitive to its public image.

b. begins with a smaller initial request for data.

c. is only useful in conjunction with personal selling.

d. seldom is used by ethical field-workers.

226. When a researcher wishes to compare a variable in a given time period with its counterpart in another time period, __________ is often used.

a. a marginal total

b. cross-tabulation

c. an index number

d. tabulation

227