Cash - 40,000 - Loss on Sale 10,000 Accumulated Depreciation - 250.000 - Machine - 300,000 - Question: Why is this not an impairment loss? When does an impairment loss apply? I am not asking about the technical details about how to calculate the impairment loss. I am just looking for a brief explanation in one or two sentences) about the basic difference between an impairment loss scenario and the scenario described above