Question
Chapter 8 Routing 1. On a TCP/IP network, a router determines where an incoming packet should go by looking at the packets __________. A. destination
Chapter 8
Routing
1. On a TCP/IP network, a router determines where an incoming packet should go by looking at the packets __________.
A. destination MAC addresses
B. destination IP addresses
C. source IP address
D. source MAC address
2. At which layer of the OSI model do routers work?
A. Transport
B. Data Link
C. Session
D. Network
3. Which column in a routing table tells the router which of its ports to use?
A. Netmask
B. Interface
C. Gateway
D. Network Destination
4. When a router has more than one route to the same network, the responsibility for assigning a different metric for each route lies with the __________.
A. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
B. manufacturer of the router
C. person in charge of that router
D. operating system, which must dynamically reconfigure the route
5. Which tool can be used to access a Cisco router remotely from a Windows 7 system?
A. NMS
B. traceroute
C. ping
D. PuTTY
6. Which form of NAT typically handles the one-to-many connections?
A. Source NAT
B. Static NAT
C. Port Address Translation (PAT)
D. Destination NAT
7. What is another name for dynamic NAT?
Destination port
A. Pooled NAT
B. Moving NAT
C. Hybrid NAT
D. Area NAT
8. Which type of NAT allows many computers to share a pool of routable IP addresses that number fewer than the computers?
A. Dynamic NAT
B. Source NAT
C. Static NAT
D. Destination NAT
9. Your company has a single server on the private LAN that it wants to make accessible from the Internet. Which of the following would give the server the protection of NAT, while allowing access to that server from the Internet?
A. Source NAT
B. Overloaded NAT
C. Port forwarding
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
10. __________ maps a single routable (that is, not private) IP address to a single machine, enabling you to access that machine from outside the network.
A. Dynamic NAT
B. Source NAT
C. Static NAT
D. Destination NAT
11. Which NAT technology uses port numbers to map traffic from specific machines on the network?
A. Dynamic NAT
B. Pooled NAT
C. SNAT
D. PAT
12. Which term refers to the passage of a packet through a router?
A. Hop
B. Jump
C. Gateway
D. Metric
13. Which routing metric determines the largest frame a particular technology can handle?
A. MTU
B. Latency
C. Hop count
D. Cost
14. Which routing metric refers to the ability of a connection to handle more data than others?
A. Bandwidth
B. Cost
C. Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU)
D. Latency
15. Which vector routing protocol is the oldest?
A. RIP
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
16. What is the maximum number of hops allowed by RIP?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15
17. Which protocol is a path vector routing protocol?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. BGP
D. EIGRP
18. What protocol was adopted in 1994, and is now considered obsolete except for small, private WANs?
A. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP-4)
B. Overloaded NAT
C. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
D. RIPv2
19. Which protocol is a distance vector routing protocol?
A. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
B. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)
C. IS-IS.
D. RIPv2
20. Which routing protocol does not support Variable-Length Subnet Masking (VLSM)?
A. OSPF
B. RIPv1
C. IS-IS
D. RIPv2
21. Which of the following could be a valid Autonomous System Number (ASN)?
A. 0.0.0.0
B. 1.33457
C. 192.168.30.1
D. 255
22. The protocol used by Autonomous Systems to communicate with each other is generically called a(n) __________.
A. Cross Gateway Protocol (CGP)
B. Mixed Gateway Protocol (MGP)
C. Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP)
D. Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
23. Which organization assigns Autonomous System Numbers (ASNs)?
A. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
B. Autonomous System administrator
C. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
D. Network administrator
24. Which attribute applies to the OSPF routing method?
A. It uses a link state algorithm.
B. It uses the Cisco IOS operating system for communication.
C. It sends routing information at regular intervals even if there are no changes.
D. It has a maximum hop count of 15.
25. Which protocol is used on the Internet for communication between Autonomous Systems?
A. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP-4)
B. Overloaded NAT
C. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
D. RIPv2
26. Which protocol is a link state dynamic routing protocol?
A. IS-IS
B. RIPv2
C. RIPv1
D. BGP
27. By convention, what is the name given to Area ID 0 (zero) of an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) network?
A. Backbone
B. Segment
C. Subnet
D. Port
28. Which value represents the core or backbone area of an OSPF network?
A. 1.1.1.1
B. 0.0.0.0
C. 255.255.255.255
D. 1.33457
29. Which routing protocol is the choice in most large enterprise networks?
A. IS-IS
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
30. Which protocol is Ciscos proprietary protocol?
A. OSPF
B. IS-IS
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
31. What is the name of the proprietary cable designed by Cisco for connecting to their routers?
A. Port
B. Yost
C. Parallel
D. Crossover
32. What is the name of Ciscos proprietary operating system?
A. MAC IOS
B. Cisco IOS
C. NAT
D. EIGRP
33. Which tool is used by an administrator to manage many routers and obtain an overall view of all the routers?
A. traceroute
B. ping
C. Network Management System (NMS)
D. MTR
34. What tasks should be performed as soon as an administrator finishes configuring a router?
A. Run the operating systems traceroute tool and document how you configured the router.
B. Document how you configured the router and back up the router configuration.
C. Turn of the Network Management System (NMS) and turn on dynamic routing.
D. Turn on dynamic routing and run the operating systems traceroute tool.
35. Which tool records the route between any two hosts on a network and can be used to troubleshoot routing problems?
A. traceroute
B. ping
C. Network Management System (NMS)
D. MTR
--- END CHAPTER 8 ---
Chapter 9
TCP/IP Applications
1. Two computers first acknowledges the other, after which they conduct their communication. They end by closing the communication. Which term describes this communication process?
A. Broadcast
B. Connection-oriented
C. Connectionless
D. Multicast
2. Which protocol is by far the most common type of session on a typical TCP/IP network?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. ICMP
D. IGMP
3. The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) works at __________ to deliver connectionless packets.
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
4. Which protocol is best for simple, connectionless applications that never need more than a single packet?
A. TCP
B. ICMP
C. UDP
D. IGMP
5. Which Transport layer protocol does Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) use?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. ICMP
D. IGMP
6. Which protocol is popular for moving files between computers on the same LAN, where the chances of losing packets are very small?
A. HTTP
B. TFTP
C. ICMP
D. SMTP
7. Which protocol does the ping application use?
A. SMTP
B. HTTP
C. ICMP
D. DHCP
8. Using the ping command, which message is displayed if your computer has no route to the address listed?
A. Destination host unreachable
B. Source host unreachable
C. Destination port missing
D. Source port missing
9. A particular multicast called an IGMP group is assigned to which address?
A. 128.0.0.0/24
B. 0.0.0.0
C. FF-FF-FF-FF
D. 224.0.0.0/4
10. Many years ago, the ping command had a bug that allowed malicious users to send malformed ping packets to a destination causing the __________ issue.
A. buffer overload
B. man-in-the middle attack
C. blue screen of death
D. ping of death
11. If you ping a device and no echo reply comes back before the 1-second default time, ping will respond with a __________ message.
A. server overload issue
B. request timed out
C. time to live (TTL) exceeded
D. hop count exceeded
12. What name is given to the port numbers in the range of 0 to 1023?
A. Private port numbers
B. Dynamic port numbers
C. Well-known port numbers
D. Listening ports
13. A Web clients source port number, generated pseudo-randomly by the Web client computer, is classically assigned as a(n) __________.
A. well-known port number
B. ephemeral port number
C. listening port number
D. logical port number
14. What function is being used if a packet is sent to port 80?
A. FTP
B. Telnet
C. Web browsing
D. E-mail
15. Which type of port has a number in the 1024 to 49151 range?
A. Well-known port
B. Dynamic port
C. Private port
D. Registered port
16. Which term refers to ports in the 49152 to 65535 range?
A. Well-known port
B. Dynamic port
C. Listening port
D. Registered port
17. Which term refers to session information stored in RAM by a computer on one side of a session?
A. Connection
B. Packet
C. Session
D. Endpoint
18. Which term refers to another name for a session?
A. Web site
B. Endpoint
C. Connection
D. Port
19. Which command is known as the show me the endpoint command?
A. RSH
B. Netstat
C. RCP
D. rlogin
20. Which term describes the status for a socket that is prepared to respond to any IP packets destined for that sockets port number?
A. Open port
B. Closed-wait
C. Established port
D. Ready port
21. Which term describes the status of a port that is part of an active working endpoint pair?
A. Open port
B. Close-wait
C. Established port
D. Listening port
22. Which switch is used with the Windows netstat command to show the process ID?
A. -p
B. -o
C. -n
D. -b
23. Which switch is used with the Windows netstat command to show name of a running program?
A. -p
B. -o
C. -n
D. -b
24. Which term defines a number used by the operating system to track all the running programs?
A. Private port number
B. Process ID (PID)
C. Socket
D. Dynamic port number
25. Which protocol is the underlying protocol used by the World Wide Web?
A. HTML
B. IIS
C. JavaScript
D. HTTP
26. Which free Web server was originally created for the UNIX/Linux platforms, but now runs on multiple operating systems (including Windows)?
A. Internet Information Services (IIS)
B. Apache HTTP Server
C. Google Chrome
D. IMAP4
27. Which protocol is the secure counterpart of HTTP?
A. SSL
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. RSH
28. Google Chrome and Mozilla Firefox are examples of __________ applications.
A. Mail client
B. Web client
C. Web server
D. FTP client
29. What type of key does SSL use to encrypt communication?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Open
D. Netscape proprietary
30. Which protocol enables you to control a remote computer from a local computer over a network?
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. SMTP
31. Which protocol is an enhanced alternative to POP3 and runs on TCP port 143?
A. SMTP
B. IMAP4
C. POP4
D. Web-based e-mail
32. Which Linux and UNIX e-mail server program controls about 20 percent of the market and only runs the SMTP protocol?
A. IMAP4
B. Eudoras Qpopper
C. Exchange Server
D. Sendmail
33. Which TCP ports does the old active File Transfer Protocol (FTP) use by default?
A. 80 and 81
B. 25 and 110
C. 20 and 21
D. 22 and 23
34. Which protocol is used to send e-mail over TCP port 25 and is used by clients to send messages?
A. POP3
B. IGMP
C. SMTP
D. TFTP
35. What file transfer protocol uses UDP port 69?
A. FTP
B. E-mail
C. Web browsing
D. TFTP
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