Consider a market where the risk-free rate is 0.01 and the market portfolio has an expected return of 0.09 and a return variance of 0.04. An investor has the mean-variance preference of investments with a risk-aversion coefficient of 4. Under Markowitz's portfolio theory, what would be this investor's maximized utility from investments? Please round your calculation to the nearest 2nd decimal and fill in the calculated number below. Please put your answer as decimal values instead of percentage points (e.g., 0.01, but not 1%)