Consider the same infinite random walk RW on the integers as in Problem 1. That is, this RW goes from i to i+1 in one move with probability 4/7, goes from i to i1 in one move with probability 1/7, and finally, goes from i to i 2 in one move with probability 2/7. Starting from 0, what percentage of the negative integers are visited by this random walk EXACTLY TWICE? Give me the numerical value.