Consider two assets A and B. Each has the same expected return. Suppose that the variance of the return on A is 49 and the variance of the return on asset B is 100. The returns on the two assets are correlated with a correlation coefficient of .4. If an investor wants to hold a portfolio of the two assets that has the smallest variance of its return, what fraction of the investors wealth should be in asset A? How would this fraction change, i.e. get smaller or larger, if the correlation coefficient got smaller?