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Conventional wisdom says one should measure a manager's investment performance over an entire market cycle. What arguments support this contention? What arguments contradict it? Does

Conventional wisdom says one should measure a manager's investment performance over an entire market cycle. What arguments support this contention? What arguments contradict it? Does the use of inverses of managers with similar in investment styles to evaluate relative investment performance overcome the statistical problems associated with instability of beta or total volatility?

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