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Currently ( time 0 ) Company A is expected to survive another year in business ( until time 1 ) , at which time the

Currently (time 0) Company A is expected to survive another year in business (until time 1), at which time the firm will liquidate and all value will be distributed to claimants. The firm is presently all equity financed with 50,000 shares outstanding. The cash flow of the firm is risk free and it is common knowledge that Company A will receive $1 million immediately (at time 0) and another $1 million at time 1. The companys current dividend policy is to pay out its entire free cash flow as dividends as it is received (so $20 per share now and at time 1). Assume the risk free rate in the economy is 5% and the firm has no positive NPV projects available. Calculate the current price per share (at t=0) before the dividends are paid out.
Time 0: 1,000,000/1.05=952,381
Time 1: 1,000,000/(1.05)^2=907,029
EV =952,381+907,029=1,859,410
Price per share = EV / shares outstanding
=1,859,410/50,000
= $37.19
Is my work correct? Please let me know if I solved this problem correctly, thank you!

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