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Do you agree that when one enters into a disadvantageous bargaining position because of one's own voluntary acts (such as ignoring a warning) that an

Do you agree that when one enters into a disadvantageous bargaining position because of one's own voluntary acts (such as ignoring a warning) that an otherwise exploiting act becomes morally permissible because the person assumed the risk, or is the act always impermissible because the person is especially disadvantaged? Why, or why not?

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