Ella buys a machine for $8,500, less discounts of 20% and 15%. The overhead expenses are 8% on cost and she plans to make a profit of 60% on the cost. Just a quick question. Would the overhead costs not be added onto the cost price before calculating the 60% mark up? e.g. Profit on said machine = 60 %* $ 6,242.40 = $ 3,745.44 Selling price would be = $5780 +$462.40 + $3,745.44 = $13,733.28