Explain the elephant curve of global inequality and growth since 1980. Describe it in plain words to someone who has no access to the graph and has never attended Econ 133. What explains most of the hump we see between the 10 to 50 percentiles? How does our understanding of the distributional incidence of income growth since 1980 differ when adopting the longer-run view, starting at 1820? Give your interpretation as to why these depictions of income growth differ.