Explain why a risk$-$neutral investor would be indifferent between a one$-$year U$.$S$.$ dollar investment in a risk$-$free security at $3\%$ and a one$-$year British pound investment at $3\%$ if the investor expected the $$/$ spot exchange rate one year later to equal the forward rate as determined by the IRPT. In your explanation, assume the current spot exchange rate is $$1\mathrm{.}50/$BP$.$