Explain why the binomial distribution (with parameters n and p) can be approximated by a normal distribution if n is large enough. That is, if X Binomial(n , p), and if np > 10 and n(1 p) > 10, then

X N (np , np(1 p)) approximately.

If a link can be provided to a videa that can explain both ideas and their relationship. I am trying to understand this in my own words. If not that is fine. Thank you!