for question 4, you gave this answer 4. What share of the company will SaaS Capital need to own in January 2024 if her annual required rate of return is 50% and Samantha anticipates an exit in December 2028 of $150 million? What is the implied pre- and post-money valuation if she invests in those terms? First, we need to calculate the implied pre-money valuation. This is the value of the company before the new investment. We can calculate this by using the formula: Exit valuation: 150 million Required rate of return; 50% Number of years: 5 Required ownership= expected return/ anticipated exit value New shares= (required ownership x total shares outstanding)/ (1- required ownership) Implied pre money valuation= total shares outstanding x share price/ (1+ required ownership) Implied post money valuation= total shares outstanding x share price Post money valuation= investment/ ownership= 50 million/ (1+0,50)^5= 150 million Pre money valuation= post money valuation - investment amount= $100 million Given that John Thompson is seeking to raise 5 million in equity, SaaS capital would need to own 33,33% of the company in january 2024. how did you exactly come up with 33,33%? can you fill the formula in with the numbers you have used? I don't understand why we can imply that the pre money valuation is 150 million and the post money 100 million