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had had much less leverage, financing its operations with 50% less debt and making up the difference by issuing more shares. This would imply a

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had had much less leverage, financing its operations with 50% less debt and making up the difference by issuing more shares. This would imply a new debt-to-equity ratio of 0.44. How many shares would then be outstanding? How would P/E and EV/EBITDA multiples be impacted? What does it imply for the usefulness of these multiples

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