Question
he IRS makes a distinction between whole and more than whole when it comes to taxing court ordered damages. Not taxing lost income violates this
he IRS makes a distinction between whole and more than whole when it comes to taxing court ordered damages. Not taxing lost income violates this principal because you would have been taxed on the income had you earned it form your job. What do you think the reasoning behind this contradiction is?
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Financial Management For Public Health And Not For Profit Organizations
Authors: Steven A. Finkler
3rd Edition
0136070736, 978-0136070733
