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Health insurance is normally seen as a good that is most valuable to sick people, since health expenditures are highest for the sick. Yet,

 

Health insurance is normally seen as a good that is most valuable to sick people, since health expenditures are highest for the sick. Yet, actuarially-fair health insurance is worth nothing to people who are certain to become sick (p = 1). Why does the standard model produce this result? How is this different from the way real-world insurance markets work?

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