Hello, I would like to help on this problem as I can only seem to get risk-free asset correct but nothing else.

Greta, an elderly investor, has a degree of risk aversion of A= 3 when applied to return on wealth over a one-year horizon. She is pondering two portfolios, the S&P 500 and a hedge fund, as well as a number of one-year strategies. (All rates are annual and continuously compounded.) The S&P 500 risk premium is estimated at 6.2% per year, with a SD of 21.2%. The hedge fund risk premium is estimated at 11.2% with a SD of 36.2%. The returns on both of these portfolios in any particular year are uncorrelated with its own returns in other years. They are also uncorrelated with the returns of the other portfolio in other years. The hedge fund claims the correlation coefficient between the annual returns on the S&P 500 and the hedge fund in the same year is zero, but Greta is not fully convinced by this claim. Calculate Greta's capital allocation using an annual correlation of 0.3. (Do not round your intermediate calculations. Round your answers to 2 decimal places.) % S&P Hedge Risk-free asset % %