Hi i have the following problem

a company have a obligation of 60 million in 2 years. they want to immunize the interest risk. there are two bonds on the market.

a 2-year annuity bond with annual payment of 100 and a price of 195.11 today.

a 3-year bullet bond with a payment of 100 and a price of 99.12 today.

question 1: show that the zero coupon rate over the next three years is y(3)=2.32%

i am then told that the zero coupon rate over the next year is y(1)=1.21%

question 2:

which y(2) means that there will be no arbitrage if a 1-year zero coupon bond could be traded at y(1)=1.21%

question 3

calculate the present value of the obligation