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Historically, corporations were not held criminally liable because, under the traditional view, a corporation could not possess the criminal intent requisite for committing a

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Historically, corporations were not held criminally liable because, under the traditional view, a corporation could not possess the criminal intent requisite for committing a crime. The dramatic growth in size and importance of corporations has changed this view. Do you think corporations should be held liable for crimes they commit? Why or why not and what should be the remedy? Be sure to reference at least one additional resource, textbook or other in your post, and include proper APA citations for them.

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