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How much should it be capitalized Assume Buyer Corp. agrees to pay Seller Corp. a one - time payment two years from now equaling 1
How much should it be capitalized Assume Buyer Corp. agrees to pay Seller Corp. a onetime payment two years from now
equaling of their EBITDA if it exceeds or meets $ and nothing if does not exceed
$ Assume the following probabilities for potential outcomes:
EBITDA$M Probability.
If we further assume that a scenarios approach with a single discount rate of is used in
valuing the contingent consideration, how much should it be capitalized for immediately
subsequent to the acquisition? Accounting for some rounding may be necessary
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